View Full Version : Why did Jesus ask "why"?
Butterflylady
August 1st, 2005, 12:13 PM
Why did Jesus say "why" in "why have you forsaken me?"
As I understand it, it was at this moment that God had to turn away from Jesus as Jesus took on all of the sins of the world. What I was wondering though is why he asked "why"?
Do you think it was maybe because it was such an awful (beyond my imagination) moment and in that horrible state of taking on sin He was just crying out to His Father?
Or was He really asking why?
Or is the original language different from how we know the word "why"? (Like they had several words for love, but we just have "love".)
Any thoughts?
:):
Hootmon
August 1st, 2005, 12:24 PM
Psalm 22
Some older threads on the same topic.
http://www.rr-bb.com/showthread.php?t=195689
http://www.rr-bb.com/showthread.php?t=86980
http://www.rr-bb.com/showthread.php?t=134148
Butterflylady
August 1st, 2005, 12:29 PM
Psalm 22
Whoa! I never saw that before... I know I have read it, because I have read through all of the Psalms, but for some reason I have no memory of what it said. Thank you for posting that!
I got chills reading it.
YSIC
Hootmon
August 1st, 2005, 12:33 PM
Thank you for posting that! Most people read the Gospel versions of that in isolation. Knowing it was a quote from the OT puts a different 'spin' on the NT versions, doesnt it?
Jesus was, at least in part, pointing out to the 'audience' that He was fullfilling OT Prophecy while on the Cross.
Hootmon
August 1st, 2005, 12:38 PM
To answer the OP question of 'Or was He really asking why?'
My answer is 'He wasnt'...
Psa 22:24 For He has not despised nor hated the affliction of the afflicted; and He has not hidden His face from Him, but when He cried to Him, He heard.
Helivesinus
August 4th, 2005, 05:38 PM
God had turned his head from Jesus while he carried the Sin of mankind. Jesus had never known not being in touch with God, and this was the first time he was left alone. Moreover, I think Christ was making a point to mankind, he knew "why".
blitzkreig
August 4th, 2005, 09:43 PM
My answer is 'He wasnt'...
[Quote]
Psa 22:24 For He has not despised nor hated the affliction of the afflicted; and He has not hidden His face from Him, but when He cried to Him, He heard. So then the phrase may have been used for effect? Instructional? :noidea
... But it wouldn't be an isolated case ...
.
Hootmon
August 5th, 2005, 10:57 AM
So then the phrase may have been used for effect? Instructional? :noidea Perhaps. People are still asking that very question, but it seems few actually go to Psa 22 for the answer. Its in there.
The 'lesson' is... Even when things seem to be at their very worst, God has NOT forsaken you. He hears...
Jesus knew this to be true even at His 'worst moment'.
Reading Psalm 22 with this in mind is very enlightening.
antitox
August 7th, 2005, 01:04 PM
I believe that that was the point where the sin of all mankind was placed upon him just as it was done in the OT where the priests would lay their hand on a sacrifice (representing the placing of the person's sin upon the animal) just prior to killing it. It occurred just before his death.
That moment is where Jesus experienced total separation from the Father. Yes, it fulfilled the prophecy in Psalms, but it was the moment he experienced that brought about the cry he made. I think that's why it was prophesied in the first place.
I also believe it was the very moment of our redemption. The price was paid; the transaction occurred. Then he said "it is finished." (John 19:30)
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